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Daily link icon Friday, January 21, 2005

The Naturalistic Fallacy is only valid on the Christian worldview

For one of my classes we read a selection from Steven Pinker's "How the Mind Works". In the selection he discusses some of the objections to his conception of the mind as a product of evolution (thus having certain built-in characteristics "designed" by natural selection -- i.e. a human nature), one of them being that "if obnoxious behavior like aggression, war, rape, clannishness, and the pursuit of status and wealth are innate, that would make them "natural" and hence good". All Pinker says in rebuttal to this is that "the fallacy" of this objection "is so obvious it has been given a name: the naturalistic fallacy, that what happens in nature is right."

I really like Steven Pinker -- I've made my way through most of his "The Language Instinct". He is excellent as a cognitive scientist, but lousy as a philosopher. The naturalistic fallacy presupposes that there is some external standard of morality that supersedes nature, yet if our nature is a product of evolution and there is no God, then nature's all we got.

David Hume (correctly) pointed out that you cannot derive ought from is. The problem is, for an atheist, there simply is no ought possible. Obligation can only come from authority, and, without God, there is no standard of authority. You can try to do the opposite of what Wittgenstein said he did -- rather than throwing away the ladder once you've climbed up it, you start up in thin air with no ladder in the first place -- and try to construct some emergent social theory of authority, but it's impossible to justify why that would supersede any of our natural inclinations that contradict the social authority, or why the social authority has any authority at all -- hence the starting in thin air.

The Christian worldview has a basis for authority, and morality. Only upon the Christian worldview can we correctly separate ought from is. In fact, only upon the Christian worldview can we have any conception of "ought" at all. So, the naturalistic fallacy, which claims that what is natural is not necessarily good, and what's good is not necessarily natural, has no way to justify that apart from the Christian worldview. So, only on the Christian worldview, a worldview that views nature as corrupt and not existent as God originally intended, is the naturalistic fallacy justified.

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Comments XML gif

Andrew wrote:

Some of us world argue the Christian worldview is right up there in midair with the rest of humanity's worldviews. It being possibly fictitious and not provable or falsifiable.

∴ Andrew | 21-Jan-2005 11:45pm est | #6876

Jim wrote:

The naturalistic fallacy presupposes that there is some external standard of morality that supersedes nature

No, it doesn't. Not accepting instinct as a standard of morality does not imply that you must accept an external standard of morality.

if our nature is a product of evolution and there is no God, then nature's all we got.

Replace "our nature" with "instinct", and it might be a little clearer. While we have natural instincts, the concept that we are "all natural", and the concept that we are not slaves to our instincts are not mutually exclusive. We can ignore our instincts whilst still actiing perfectly naturally and without relying on an external source of morality.

By using two different concepts and labelling them both as "nature", you are confusing the issue.

The problem is, for an atheist, there simply is no ought possible. Obligation can only come from authority, and, without God, there is no standard of authority.

Of course there is. Society is one such example.

it's impossible to justify why that would supersede any of our natural inclinations that contradict the social authority, or why the social authority has any authority at all -- hence the starting in thin air.

Society has authority because people accept it as an authority. People accept it as an authority because they are taught that as children, and, I suspect, because there's evolutionary pressure to do what your elders tell you to.

Only upon the Christian worldview can we correctly separate ought from is.

You might want to be more careful with your language in future, as stating, in essence, that only Christians are capable of thinking clearly comes across as being extremely arrogant and condescending to non-Christians, IMHO.

∴ Jim | 22-Jan-2005 2:44am est | #6883

Wayne Burkett (http://www.dionidium.com) wrote:

While I'm inclined to accept that without God there is no ought -- i.e., unless an authority prescribes an action it merely is, and that without God there is no authority that isn't arbitrary -- it doesn't follow that because we need an authority from which to derive ought that there exists an authority from which to derive it. In other words, the same reliance on logic that leads one to accept that the concept of should requires an authority might also lead one to believe that there is no basis upon which such an authority can be reasonably presumed.

I don't know how one arrives at a stable morality, but it doesn't have to be through the introduction of magic.

∴ Wayne Burkett | 22-Jan-2005 5:17am est | http://www.dionidium.com | #6885

Keith (http://keithdevens.com/) wrote:

While I won't get to respond in detail for a few days most likely, I wanted to respond to this:

> Only upon the Christian worldview can we correctly separate ought from is.

You might want to be more careful with your language in future, as stating, in essence, that only Christians are capable of thinking clearly comes across as being extremely arrogant and condescending to non-Christians, IMHO.

I was careful with my language. I didn't say that non-Christians can't think clearly. I said that only the Christian worldview can provide the preconditions necessary for rational thought. To the extent that non-Christians think clearly they, without admitting it, borrow from the Christian worldview.

The reason non-Christians can think rationally, as well as posit the existence of truth, good and evil, the uniformity of nature, the inductive principle, logic, math, and so on, is only because their worldview is false and the Christian worldview is true.

Keith | 22-Jan-2005 8:29am est | http://keithdevens.com/ | #6886

24.217.67.11 wrote:

"The reason non-Christians can think rationally, as well as posit the existence of truth, good and evil, the uniformity of nature, the inductive principle, logic, math, and so on, is only because their worldview is false and the Christian worldview is true."

While I agree that it may be impossible to derive an ought without the use of an unquestionable authority, I do not understand why that authority must be Christian in nature. Or with what premise you've derived the argument that other views are false.

It would require less burden to prove rational thought without christianity than strictly with. For instance, Aristotle (who existed before Christianity) made rational observations that Christian institutions would admire, and hold true for centuries.

You present reasonable argument. But it only holds true when in reference to atheism. No evidence exists to suggest a Christian God more probable than a Hindu God. Or one of the Gods Aristotle used when deriving absolute morals in an inabsolute universe.

∴ 24.217.67.11 | 22-Jan-2005 12:12pm est | #6887

Alan Green (http://cardboard.nu) wrote:

I do agree that people have an innate drive to separate right from wrong, and I do agree that this drive is God given.

I've spent far too many hours arguing with atheists who recognise that they need a morality, so they make up their own. When I point out that their morality has no absolute basis, they shrug and say, 'But I'm happy with it, and I don't believe in your god, so your morality is also without foundation. Live and let live. Peace.' As sorry as I feel for these people, I respect their point of view, and am puzzled as to how I might speak the truth in love to them. What would you say to them?

∴ Alan Green | 23-Jan-2005 8:05pm est | http://cardboard.nu | #6894

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